My favorite argument for the Immaculate Conception
I learned long before I became a Catholic, while still an Anglican. Fr. Knox
was a mischievous lad in his Anglican days, probably much more so than after he
converted. Not only were Anglicans permitted to believe in the Immaculate
Conception, they were required to do so by the notoriously protestant 39
Articles.
The Rev'd. Mr Ronald Knox on the Immaculate Conception
Mary in the XXXIX Articles
[Sermon preached at the Church of St James the
Less, Plymouth, on the Feast of the Assumption before Fr. Knox's conversion to
the Roman Church.]
Most of us, I take it, believe that our Lord Jesus
Christ, the Son 0f God, is not only God, but man. So at least we are told in
the Creed, Quicumque vult. Now if you will look at the ninth of the
XXXIX Articles of Religion, you will find that Original Sin, in every person
born into the world, deserves God's wrath and damnation. Are we therefore to
conclude that Jesus Christ, being a man, was born into the world deserving
God's wrath and damnation? If not, then we must suppose that some special
dispensation of the grace of God broke off the entail of Original Sin, and
prevented its reaching him. And in the fifteenth Article it is laid down that
Christ was void of sin, both in his flesh and in his spirit. At what point,
then, was the entail of Original Sin broken off? Of course, it might be open to
us to imagine that it was broken off at the precise moment of the conception of
Jesus in the womb of his Mother. But that view would be unscriptural, because
there is no reference to any such process in the promises made to Mary. It
would also be untraditional, for it is not the view of the holy Fathers of the
Church.
It would also be contrary to reason. The Article
tells us that Jesus was void of sin in his flesh as in his spirit. And in order
that he might be void of sin in his flesh, he was not born by the ordinary
process of nature, but of a virgin, who remained a virgin in her child-
bearing. Now, is it not unreasonable and materialistic to suppose that Jesus
would not allow his Mother to be impure in her flesh, but would allow her to be
impure in her spirit? That he would insist on her abstaining from the lawful
use of holy matrimony, and yet would not insist on that true purity in her,
which is the purity of the heart? It seems, rather, that she was absolutely
pure in her soul as in her body, that Mary, like Jesus, and because of Jesus,
and in virtue of the foreseen merits of the Passion of Jesus, was void of
original sin. And that, I suppose, is why our Prayer Book Collect for Christmas
Day is careful to describe Jesus as born, not merely of a virgin, but of a pure
virgin.
And if Mary was without Original Sin, she was also
without Actual Sin. For if she, born like Eve sinless, had sinned like Eve,
then it would have been a second fall of man. By her disobedience she would
have contracted the guilt of Original Sin afresh, and so Jesus would have been
born in sin after all. Someone might still refuse to call her sinless, on the
ground that she may have sinned after Jesus' birth. I only ask, is that likely?
That she, who had refrained from sin in obedience to the God she had never
seen, would have sinned when she had Jesus in her arms, Jesus at her breast,
when she had seen him hang on the cross, and ascend into heaven?
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